I gave several and quoted the Bible for citation. You just don't accept them, pronounce none of the dogma to be dogma, and insist that the Bible verses, though verbatim, are taken out of context. Nice try, but you fail.

Then why are there over 1000 religions? Why would he do that? Why can't you and I see and hear God? It is pretty clear that God has not revealed himself to the entire world.

So why must we die in order to be eternally alive?

It's a convenient theory, but the "guarantees" cannot be assured, "infallibility" is construed to mean some things can be fallible, and facts not in evidence are offered, "God can never lie, so believers can never lie".

Semantics. Steve said "in matters of faith and morals, the Catholic Church has never deviated from what the first apostles preached after Pentecost....and what was later written down as scripture.". My examples addressed this false statement.

Your opinions do not constitute validity. Cite the scripture that constitutes this "larger context" if you wish to debate it further.

Cry me a river. When you try to change the topic to something personal about me, you have already lost the argument.

They are scripture and cited from the gospels of the apostles as Steve suggested, thus my examples to him.

So try this . . . Immaculate Conception is undoubtably a Catholic Marian dogma. Pope Piux IX decreed Mary to be free from sin. Yet . . .

1. All people sin.​

"for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God". Romans 3:23​

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2. Jesus Christ is the only exception.​

"For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." II Corinthians 5:21​

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3. Thus, Mary must be divine to be free from sin.​

But you said the citation I used were taken out of context. That suggests that I did not cite additional scripture that would cause the scripture at question to be taken wrongly. That is what I'm asking for, not your opinion.

You cannot deny that many disagree with this. The Protestant Reformation had this issue as a major tenet.

You say that you pray to Mary only to intercede with God on your behalf, just as if you asked a friend to pray on your behalf. Yet when a person prays to someone, there is an implication that the person is divine. How else could Mary hear your prayer if not divine? Follow my logic . . .

1. You are to offer prayers on behalf of others "​

"Confess your trespasses to one another, and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The effective, fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much." James 5:16​

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2. Yet you do not pray to a friend across town to offer a prayer on your behalf. Thus to claim that Mary can hear prayers is to say she is divine.​

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3. Mary died quite a while ago. The dead are unaware of events on earth. "​

"For the living know that they will die; But the dead know nothing, And they have no more reward, For the memory of them is forgotten. Also their love, their hatred, and their envy have now perished; Nevermore will they have a share In anything done under the sun." Ecclesiastes 9:5-6​

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4. Therefore, if Mary is not dead, then she is divine.​

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5. You will likely say that it is not dogma, but Catholics believe that Mary mediates and advocates to God upon their behalf. Yet the scriptures say . . .​

"For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus," I Timothy 2:5. ​

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And the scriptures refer only to Jesus as advocate . . .​

"My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous." I John 2:1​

You forget many things. And you are wrong about many things, like saying that I would not debate you on this.